This page was exported from Free valid test braindumps [ http://free.validbraindumps.com ] Export date:Sat Apr 5 6:12:48 2025 / +0000 GMT ___________________________________________________ Title: 2025 Correct and Up-to-date Shared Assessments CTPRP BrainDumps [Q125-Q143] --------------------------------------------------- 2025 Correct and Up-to-date Shared Assessments CTPRP BrainDumps Current CTPRP dumps Preparation through Our Practice Test NO.125 When a contractor’s agreement ends, what process is crucial to secure the organization’s operational integrity?  Confirming the termination of access to company systems and networks  Reviewing and updating the relevant non-disclosure agreements  Verifying the completion of the contractor’s assigned tasks  Ensuring all company data and assets are accounted for and secured Ensuring all company data and assets are accounted for and secured when a contractor’s agreement ends is crucial to maintain the organization’s operational integrity. This process avoids potential security risks and ensures that all organizational resources are properly managed and protected.NO.126 An employee in a company violates the ethical code by accepting gifts from a client, which is against company policy. What is a potential first step in the disciplinary process?  Conducting an initial investigation to confirm details of the violation.  Recommending a counseling session to understand the employee’s perspective.  Issuing a formal warning and scheduling a follow-up review of the employee’s conduct.  Immediately terminating the employee to set an example for others. Conducting an initial investigation allows the organization to gather all relevant facts and assess the situation accurately before taking further disciplinary action. This step is crucial for ensuring that any actions taken are based on verified information and are appropriate to the situation.NO.127 Imagine a firm finds significant gaps in a vendor’s data protection practices during their questionnaire analysis. What aspect of the analysis is critical for determining the next steps?  Evaluating the criticality of the service or product provided by the vendor and the associated risks  Assessing the vendor’s potential to improve practices with additional training or resources  Analyzing the financial impact of the gaps on the firm’s revenue and cost structure  Looking into alternative vendors who can meet the security requirements more effectively In discovering significant gaps in a vendor’s data protection practices, evaluating the criticality of the service or product they provide is crucial. This evaluation helps in determining the level of risk associated with the gaps and is fundamental in deciding the urgency and nature of the remediation efforts required.NO.128 Which of the following is not a primary activity of due diligence for a lower risk vendor?  Requesting and filing external audit reports  Analyzing industry benchmarking studies  Reviewing and updating the risk management framework  Preparing reports to management regarding vendor status Requesting and filing external audit reports is typically not a primary due diligence activity for lower risk vendors, as it involves more in-depth and resource-intensive scrutiny that might not be necessary given the lower risk profile.NO.129 Which of the following BEST describes the distinction between a regulation and a standard?  A regulation must be adhered to by all companies subject to its requirements, but companies “can voluntarily choose to follow standards.  There is no distinction, regulations and standards are the same and have equal impact  Standards are always a subset of a regulation  A standard must be adhered to by companies based on the industry they are in, while regulations are voluntary. A regulation is a rule of order having the force of law, prescribed by a superior or competent authority, relating to the actions of those under the authority’s control. Regulations are issued by various government departments and agencies to carry out the intent of legislation enacted by the legislature of the applicable jurisdiction. Regulations also function to ensure uniform application of the law. A standard is a guideline established generally by private-sector bodies and that are available for use by any person or organization, private or government. The term includes what are commonly referred to as ‘industry standards’ as well as‘consensus standards’. Standards are developed through a voluntary process of collaboration and consensus among stakeholders, such as manufacturers, consumers, regulators, and experts. Standards may reflect best practices, technical specifications, performance criteria, or quality requirements. Standards do not have the force of law unless they are adopted or referenced by a regulation. Therefore, a regulation must be adhered to by all companies subject to its requirements, but companies can voluntarily choose to follow standards that are relevant and beneficial to their operations, products, or services. References:* The Difference Between Regulations and Standards* Regulations vs Standards: Clearing Up the Confusion – AEM* Standards vs. Regulations* Certified Third Party Risk Professional (CTPRP) Study GuideNO.130 Which of the following data safeguarding techniques provides the STRONGEST assurance that data does not identify an individual?  Data masking  Data encryption  Data anonymization  Data compression Data anonymization is the process of removing or altering any information that can be used to identify an individual from a data set. This technique provides the strongest assurance that data does not identify an individual, as it makes it impossible or extremely difficult to link the data back to the original source. Data anonymization can be achieved by various methods, such as generalization, suppression, perturbation, or pseudonymization12. Data anonymization is often used for privacy protection, compliance with data protection regulations, and data sharing purposes3. References:* 1: Data Security: Definition, Importance, and Types | Fortinet* 2: Data Security Best Practices: Top 10 Data Protection Methods – Ekran System* 3: Data anonymization – WikipediaNO.131 What is the primary role of the third line of defense in risk management?  Directly managing and mitigating operational risks  Overseeing and advising on risk management practices  Providing independent and objective assurance on risk management  Coordinating and executing the organization’s risk strategy This role involves assessing whether other internal controls and governance systems are functioning as intended, providing assurance to the board and management about the effectiveness of these controls.NO.132 A change in regulation affecting vendor requirements often necessitates a __________ of the vendor’s compliance.  reevaluation  revision  review  reassessment Regulatory changes can impose new compliance burdens or standards on vendors, often requiring a reassessment to verify that the vendor can meet these new demands and avoid penalties or operational disruptions.NO.133 When defining due diligence requirements for the set of vendors that host web applications which of the following is typically NOT part of evaluating the vendor’s patch management controls?  The capability of the vendor to apply priority patching of high-risk systems  Established procedures for testing of patches, service packs, and hot fixes prior to installation  A documented process to gain approvals for use of open source applications  The existence of a formal process for evaluation and prioritization of known vulnerabilities A documented process to gain approvals for use of open source applications is typically not part of evaluating the vendor’s patch management controls, because it is not directly related to the patching process. Patch management controls are the policies, procedures, and tools that enable an organization to identify, acquire, install, and verify patches for software vulnerabilities. Patch management controls aim to reduce the risk of exploitation of known software flaws and ensure the functionality and compatibility of the patched systems. A documented process to gain approvals for use of open source applications is more relevant to the software development and procurement processes, as it involves assessing the legal, security, and operational implications of using open source software components in the vendor’s products or services. Open source software may have different licensing terms, quality standards, and support levels than proprietary software, and may introduce additional vulnerabilities or dependencies that need to be managed. Therefore, a documented process to gain approvals for use of open source applications is a good practice for vendors, but it is not a patch management control per se. References:* Guide to Enterprise Patch Management Planning* Governance of Key Aspects of System Patch Management* Certified Third Party Risk Professional (CTPRP) Study GuideNO.134 In a scenario where a service provider’s employee unknowingly shares sensitive data due to a phishing attack, what program component may need improvement?  Broadening the scope of IT security tools used within the provider’s network.  Strengthening the encryption protocols used for transmitting sensitive information.  Immediate restriction of access rights for employees under investigation for security lapses.  Enhanced training on recognizing and responding to social engineering attacks. If a service provider’s employee is tricked by a phishing attack into sharing sensitive information, it indicates a need for improved awareness and training on social engineering threats. Such training should help employees recognize suspicious requests and know the proper actions to take to verify and respond to such communications securely.NO.135 Comprehensive patch management documentation must clarify the _______ and responsibilities in patching the cloud environment.  Impact  Roles  Frequency  Scope It is vital to clearly define the roles and responsibilities in patch management to ensure both the CSP and the customer know their respective duties in maintaining security and compliance.NO.136 Select the risk type that is defined as: “A third party may not be able to meet its obligations due to inadequate systems or processes”.  Reliability risk  Performance risk  Competency risk  Availability risk Performance risk, defined as the risk that a third party may not be able to meet its obligations due to inadequate systems or processes, accurately describes the situation. This type of risk involves concerns about the third party’s ability to deliver services or products at the required performance level, potentially due to limitations in their technology infrastructure, operational procedures, or management practices. Identifying and managing performance risk is essential in Third-Party Risk Management (TPRM) to ensure that third-party vendors can reliably meet contractual and service-level agreements, thereby minimizing the impact on the organization’s operations and service delivery.References:* TPRM guidelines, such as those from the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency (OCC) and the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council (FFIEC), highlight the importance of assessing and* managing performance risks associated with third-party relationships.* The “Third-Party Risk Management Guide” by ISACA discusses various types of risks, including performance risk, associated with engaging third-party service providers, emphasizing the need for thorough due diligence and ongoing monitoring.NO.137 In a scenario where a patch caused additional software incompatibilities post-deployment, what could have been neglected?  Reviewing user feedback on performance issues after deploying the patch.  Comprehensive testing of the patch in a controlled environment.  Quick rollout of the patch to a limited number of users to gather feedback.  Direct modification of the production code to apply critical security fixes. If a patch deployment results in additional software incompatibilities, it suggests that the patch was not sufficiently tested in environments that mimic real-world operating conditions. Comprehensive testing should uncover potential conflicts with existing configurations or dependencies before the patch is widely deployed.NO.138 What is the primary factor for classifying personal data under the GDPR?  The geographical location where the data is processed.  The duration for which the data is stored.  The number of data subjects affected.  The nature and context of the data. Under GDPR, personal data is classified primarily based on its nature and context, which means understanding what the data is about and how it is used, rather than how much data there is. This approach focuses on the qualitative aspects of data which are more critical to determining the appropriate security measures.NO.139 Scenario: A company is assessing a new application service provider. The application processes highly sensitive customer data and has multiple API integrations. What should the company prioritize in its risk assessment?  Prioritize the scalability of the application to handle large user bases  Evaluate the data sensitivity and API integration methods for security risks  Analyze the frequency of software updates to gauge development maturity  Conduct a performance review focusing on user experience and interface design The correct answer stresses the importance of focusing on data sensitivity and API integration methods, as these are crucial for identifying security risks associated with processing sensitive customer data and integrating with other systems.NO.140 During a contract review, a manager notices that the remediation actions for security breaches are not specified. What should be the manager’s immediate action?  Wait until a breach occurs to determine if remediation steps are necessary.  Recommend amendments to explicitly include remediation actions and penalties.  Assess whether the existing clauses are sufficient without remediation specifics.  Consult with other managers to decide if remediation actions need to be defined. If a contract lacks specific clauses on remediation actions for security breaches, the immediate action should be to recommend amendments to include these details explicitly. This ensures that both parties are clear on the steps to be taken post-incident and the penalties for non-compliance, which is crucial for effective risk management and recovery.NO.141 A software development company plans to release an update to their client management system. What should be their primary focus during the QA testing phase?  Checking the integration of the update with third-party applications  Ensuring all team members are trained on the new functionalities  Assessing the impact of the update on existing features  Ensuring the update does not introduce new vulnerabilities During the QA testing phase for a software update, the primary focus should be on ensuring that the update does not introduce new vulnerabilities. This focus helps maintain the security and functionality of the system, protecting both the service provider and the outsourcer from potential threats.NO.142 Significant downtime in a vendor’s service can cause ________ in the organization’s core operations.  “minimal disruptions with negligible operational impact”  “significant operational delays, inefficiencies, or losses”  “quick resolution and recovery without notable effects”  “improvements in efficiency due to forced innovation post-disruption” This response highlights that significant downtime in essential services provided by a vendor leads directly to operational delays, inefficiencies, or losses, emphasizing the critical nature of the service to the organization’s functioning.NO.143 Even if data is encrypted, what must an organization still determine after a security incident?  The speed at which the data can be decrypted by unauthorized parties.  Whether the encryption was effective or compromised.  The total cost of the encryption technology used.  The number of data breaches experienced in the past year. Following a security incident, it is crucial for an organization to determine whether the encryption applied was effective or if it was compromised. This assessment helps decide the necessary steps to protect affected data and comply with regulatory requirements. Loading … 100% Reliable Microsoft CTPRP Exam Dumps Test Pdf Exam Material: https://www.validbraindumps.com/CTPRP-exam-prep.html --------------------------------------------------- Images: https://free.validbraindumps.com/wp-content/plugins/watu/loading.gif https://free.validbraindumps.com/wp-content/plugins/watu/loading.gif --------------------------------------------------- --------------------------------------------------- Post date: 2025-01-31 16:22:43 Post date GMT: 2025-01-31 16:22:43 Post modified date: 2025-01-31 16:22:43 Post modified date GMT: 2025-01-31 16:22:43