Get Latest Apr-2025 Real CCSP Exam Questions and Answers FREE [Q268-Q289]

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Get Latest Apr-2025 Real CCSP Exam Questions and Answers FREE

Truly Beneficial For Your ISC Exam (Updated 827 Questions)

Candidate of the ISC CCSP exam will have the following opportunities

Use the curriculum he developed for this study as a model for a full course on certification.
Can use this experience in his future job role as an eLearning instructor and help him to develop his teaching skills.
The candidate can exploit the experience for the purpose of improving skills in using technology in teaching and learning.
Exposure to other people with an interest in technology and eLearning will be beneficial to him.

ISC CCSP Certification Exam is a valuable credential for professionals in the cloud security field. It demonstrates a high level of expertise and knowledge in securing cloud environments and is recognized globally by industry organizations and government agencies. With the increasing adoption of cloud computing, this certification is becoming more important for professionals who want to stay relevant and competitive in the industry.

ISC CCSP Certification Exam covers various topics related to cloud security, including cloud data security, cloud platform and infrastructure security, cloud application security, compliance, legal, and risk management. CCSP exam is designed to test the candidate’s ability to understand the security challenges and best practices associated with cloud computing. Certified Cloud Security Professional certification exam is designed to test the candidate’s understanding of cloud security concepts, principles, and best practices.

Q268. Which type of testing tends to produce the best and most comprehensive results for discovering system vulnerabilities?
Response:

Static

Dynamic

Pen

Vulnerability

Q269. Which of the following standards primarily pertains to cabling designs and setups in a data center?

IDCA

BICSI

NFPA

Uptime Institute

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The standards put out by Building Industry Consulting Service International (BICSI) primarily cover complex cabling designs and setups for data centers, but also include specifications on power, energy efficiency, and hot/cold aisle setups.

Q270. The various models generally available for cloud BC/DR activities include all of the following except:

Private architecture, cloud backup

Cloud provider, backup from another cloud provider

Cloud provider, backup from same provider

Cloud provider, backup from private provider

Explanation
This is not a normal configuration and would not likely provide genuine benefit.

Q271. Within an IaaS implementation, which of the following would NOT be a metric used to quantify service charges for the cloud customer?

Memory

Number of users

Storage

CPU

Within IaaS, where the cloud customer is responsible for everything beyond the physical network, the number of users on a system would not be a factor in billing or service charges. The core cloud services for IaaS are based on the memory, storage, and CPU requirements of the cloud customer. Because the cloud customer with IaaS is responsible for its own images and deployments, these components comprise the basis of its cloud provisioning and measured services billing.

Q272. BCDR strategies typically do not involve the entire operations of an organization, but only those deemed critical to their business.
Which concept pertains to the amount of data and services needed to reach the predetermined level of operations?

SRE

RPO

RSL

RTO

The recovery point objective (RPO) sets and defines the amount of data an organization must have available or accessible to reach the predetermined level of operations necessary during a BCDR situation. The recovery time objective (RTO) measures the amount of time necessary to recover operations to meet the BCDR plan.
The recovery service level (RSL) measures the percentage of operations that would be recovered during a BCDR situation. SRE is provided as an erroneous response.

Q273. Legal controls refer to which of the following?

ISO 27001

PCI DSS

NIST 800-53r4

Controls designed to comply with laws and regulations related to the cloud environment

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Legal controls are those controls that are designed to comply with laws and regulations whether they be local or international.

Q274. Which of the following would NOT be considered part of resource pooling with an Infrastructure as a Service implementation?

Storage

Application

Mamory

CPU

Explanation
Infrastructure as a Service pools the compute resources for platforms and applications to build upon, including CPU, memory, and storage. Applications are not part of an IaaS offering from the cloud provider.

Q275. Although the United States does not have a single, comprehensive privacy and regulatory framework, a number of specific regulations pertain to types of data or populations.
Which of the following is NOT a regulatory system from the United States federal government?

HIPAA

SOX

FISMA

PCI DSS

The Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS) pertains to organizations that handle credit card transactions and is an industry-regulatory standard, not a governmental one.
The Sarbanes-Oxley Act (SOX) was passed in 2002 and pertains to financial records and reporting, as well as transparency requirements for shareholders and other stakeholders. The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) was passed in 1996 and pertains to data privacy and security for medical records. FISMA refers to the Federal Information Security Management Act of 2002 and pertains to the protection of all US federal government IT systems, with the exception of national security systems.

Q276. User access to the cloud environment can be administered in all of the following ways except:

Provider provides administration on behalf the customer

Customer directly administers access

Third party provides administration on behalf of the customer

Customer provides administration on behalf of the provider

Explanation
Explanation:
The customer does not administer on behalf of the provider. All the rest are possible options.

Q277. Which of the following would NOT be included as input into the requirements gathering for an application or system?
Response:

Users

Management

Regulators

Auditors

Q278. Whereas a contract articulates overall priorities and requirements for a business relationship, which artifact enumerates specific compliance requirements, metrics, and response times?

Service level agreement

Service level contract

Service compliance contract

Service level amendment

The service level agreement (SLA) articulates minimum requirements for uptime, availability, processes, customer service and support, security controls, auditing requirements, and any other key aspect or requirement of the contract. Although the other choices sound similar to the correct answer, none is the proper term for this concept.

Q279. Which of the cloud deployment models requires the cloud customer to be part of a specific group or organization in order to host cloud services within it?

Community

Hybrid

Private

Public

A community cloud model is where customers that share a certain common bond or group membership come together to offer cloud services to their members, focused on common goals and interests.

Q280. Which of the following roles is responsible for peering with other cloud services and providers?

Cloud auditor

Inter-cloud provider

Cloud service broker

Cloud service developer

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The inter-cloud provider is responsible for peering with other cloud services and providers, as well as overseeing and managing federations and federated services.

Q281. When is a virtual machine susceptible to attacks while a physical server in the same state would not be?

When it is behind a WAF

When it is behind an IPS

When it is not patched

When it is powered off

A virtual machine is ultimately an image file residing a file system. Because of this, even when a virtual machine is “powered off,” it is still susceptible to attacks and modification. A physical server that is powered off would not be susceptible to attacks.

Q282. Which of the following management risks can make an organization’s cloud environment unviable?

Insider trading

VM sprawl

Hostile takeover

Improper personnel selection

Q283. Which value refers to the amount of data an organization would need to recover in the event of a BCDR situation in order to reach an acceptable level of operations?

SRE

RTO

RPO

RSL

The recovery point objective (RPO) is defined as the amount of data a company would need to maintain and recover in order to function at a level acceptable to management. This may or may not be a restoration to full operating capacity, depending on what management deems as crucial and essential.

Q284. Which of the cloud deployment models is used by popular services such as iCloud, Dropbox, and OneDrive?

Hybrid

Public

Private

Community

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Popular services such as iCloud, Dropbox, and OneDrive are all publicly available and are open to any user for free, with possible add-on services offered for a cost.

Q285. Because of multitenancy, specific risks in the public cloud that don’t exist in the other cloud service models include all the following except:

DoS/DDoS

Information bleed

Risk of loss/disclosure due to legal seizures

Escalation of privilege

DoS/DDoS threats and risks are not unique to the public cloud model.

Q286. What strategy involves replacing sensitive data with opaque values, usually with a means of mapping it back to the original value?

Masking

Anonymization

Tokenization

Obfuscation

Tokenization is the practice of utilizing a random and opaque “token” value in data to replace what otherwise would be a sensitive or protected data object. The token value is usually generated by the application with a means to map it back to the actual real value, and then the token value is placed in the data set with the same formatting and requirements of the actual real value so that the application can continue to function without different modifications or code changes.

Q287. Which of the following is a restriction that can be enforced by information rights management (IRM) that is not possible for traditional file system controls?

Delete

Modify

Read

IRM allows an organization to control who can print a set of information. This is not be possible under traditional file system controls, where if a user can read a file, they are able to print it as well.

Q288. SOC Type 1 reports are considered “restricted use,” in that they are intended only for limited audiences and purposes.
Which of the following is NOT a population that would be appropriate for a SOC Type 1 report?

Current clients

Auditors

Potential clients

The service organization

Explanation
Potential clients are not served by SOC Type 1 audits. A Type 2 or Type 3 report would be appropriate for potential clients. SOC Type 1 reports are intended for restricted use, where only the service organization itself, current clients, or auditors would have access to them.

Q289. Which of the following security measures done at the network layer in a traditional data center are also applicable to a cloud environment?

Dedicated switches

Trust zones

Redundant network circuits

Direct connections

Trust zones can be implemented to separate systems or tiers along logical lines for great security and access controls. Each zone can then have its own security controls and monitoring based on its particular needs.

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